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Thread: Blue Eyed Egyptians

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ocko View Post
    Today the upper class in Egypt still shows often Aryan traits. Sadat changed the social structure with his communism so now you also can find those people in the lower strata of society.
    Which is something that could be explained by breeding with European slave girls.
    The sense of honor is of so fine and delicate a nature that
    it is only to be met with in minds which are naturally noble or
    cultivated by good examples and a refined education.
    - Sir Richard Steele

  2. #42
    Senior Member Sigyn's Avatar
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    I'm sure the Egyptian upper classes bred with European slaves, although probably not to a massive extent (otherwise it would be visible in their population, which it isn't). Suffice to say, any eugenic advantages they might have from impregnating European slaves have long since been cancelled out by Egypt's massive infusion of Sub-Saharan blood.

    Quote Originally Posted by Ocko View Post
    What is the difference for you between Indo Europeans and Aryan?
    None.

    As you said yourself Europeans do not share the same DNA, so to identify race by geography and not by race itself seems to me pretty much unintellectual.
    I'm not identifying race by geography, because "Aryan" is an ethno-cultural marker rather than a purely racial one. It has both a linguistic and biological component. One can be racially Europid without being an Aryan (such as Estonians), and one can be linguistically Aryan without being an Europid (such as Indians).

    The term "Aryan" is just so subjective and fluid that I prefer not to use it when I'm discussing modern populations.

    Beside that not all Indians are Aryans, many of them are Dravidian or plain negroid.
    Indians speak an Aryan language, but aren't genetically Europid (and, thus, can't be called Aryan in the racial sense). My point is that the ancient Aryans were Europids, but not all Europids are Aryan.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Sigyn View Post
    I'm sure the Egyptian upper classes bred with European slaves, although probably not to a massive extent (otherwise it would be visible in their population, which it isn't). Suffice to say, any eugenic advantages they might have from impregnating European slaves have long since been cancelled out by Egypt's massive infusion of Sub-Saharan blood.
    It just an explanation for why there might be instances of Egyptians with such traits there. Of course, like any good breeder would explain, such traits have become less common the more generations pass. And the mixing with Sub-Saharan blood started earlier and still going on today. It would be little surprise to me that Egyptians will start to resemble them more and more as the generations passes.
    The sense of honor is of so fine and delicate a nature that
    it is only to be met with in minds which are naturally noble or
    cultivated by good examples and a refined education.
    - Sir Richard Steele

  4. #44
    Senior Member Sigyn's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by GroeneWolf View Post
    Of course, like any good breeder would explain, such traits have become less common the more generations pass.
    Those traits are already very uncommon, as I have never seen an Egyptian with them. I don't doubt that Egyptian leaders interbred with their European slaves, as Muslims are known for doing this, but it evidently didn't have any great effect on the population.

    And the mixing with Sub-Saharan blood started earlier and still going on today.
    Indeed, the Egyptians have been mixing with Sub-Saharan blood ever since the decline of Ancient Egypt. They're more negrified than the average Middle-Easterners.

    A lack of negroid admixture should not be confused for "European traits", though.

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    Eala Freia Fresena
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    Several Pharaohs had Celtic DNA, how then do you explain that if they were not offspings of Aryan.

    Answering your Jewish chicken question. I do wash my hands whether a Jew says so or not (regarding Moses teaching the Jews basic hygiene, and the Prophet Mohammed doing the same and soap is a Germanic invention it seems more the other way around)

    When Jews tell you there is no Aryan race (obviously you do not have a real name for them either) then it has to be geography, cultural or linguistic. Jews obviously do not allow you to stem from a great race. That contradicts their ideology.

    Therefore it is not me who is brainwashed by Jews but it is You.

    Beside that those Pyramids are everywhere were our race spread out. It comes from knowledge which was kept and developed by Aryans.

    That is contradictory to your Jewish science and therefore your answer is predictable.
    weel nich will dieken dej mot wieken

  6. #46
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    Quote Originally Posted by Ocko View Post
    Several Pharaohs had Celtic DNA, how then do you explain that if they were not offspings of Aryan.
    Do explain to me, which DNA groups are "Celtic" in your opinion?

    Much like the subjective "Aryan", the term "Celtic" is ethno-linguistic and not purely biological. A self-proclaimed Celtic Iberian is not genetically different from his Basque neighbor (both of them are of Old European descent). All we know is that the original Celtic cultures came from the first wave of the Indo-European migrations, and were later pushed to the western fringes of Europe by subsequent waves.

    As I've stated before: what you call "Celtic Aryan DNA" is just haplogroups that the Egyptian mummies share with Old Europeans from Southwestern Europe.

    When Jews tell you there is no Aryan race (obviously you do not have a real name for them either) then it has to be geography, cultural or linguistic.
    You've been told countless times that this label encompasses not only race but also culture and language. If we went only by race, that would make Finns and Estonians into "Aryans" (meaning, proto-Indo-Europeans), which they are not.

    Beside that those Pyramids are everywhere were our race spread out. It comes from knowledge which was kept and developed by Aryans.
    Pyramid-like structures have been found everywhere from Europe to the Middle-East to Central America. It's hardly an Aryan-only phenomenon, but rather the mark of an advanced civilization with an organized religion that it builds monuments to.

    That is contradictory to your Jewish science and therefore your answer is predictable.
    Yours was even more predictable, and therefore you'll be the recipient of my first neg-rep.

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    Senior Member Todesritter's Avatar
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    Regardless of usage of the term 'Aryan' to denote specifically the west-asiatic origined Prot-Indo-European/Proto-Indo-Aryan speaking peoples who've left a historically verified legacy in Europe, the Middle-East, and the Indian Sub-Continent, or as instead a more loosely articulated euphemism for that set of racial/phenotypical characteristics we've come to associate with the "Aryans", there is ample evidence of other ancient light-haired & eyed North African dwellers, contemporaneous with Pharaohs of the most ancient dynasties.




    Though I agree, the term 'Aryan' is problematic for this discussion, predictably distracting from the theme of the OP into a semantic debate.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Todesritter View Post
    Though I agree, the term 'Aryan' is problematic for this discussion, predictably distracting from the theme of the OP into a semantic debate.
    Or the inevitable "Semitic" debate

    When in doubt, blame Jews for everything. Everything.

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    Jewish influence does not exist?

    What the NS did in racial studies was not scientific?

    I do not let Jews determine the terms to think in.

    I ask you again then what is the name of the root race of all white people or does it not exist at all?

    Yo seemed to explain that whiteness obviously appear in other races and seem to imply that that naturally happen. Could you explain to me how that happened?

    The most logical answer for me is that they had Aryan ancestors.

    The Southamerican high cultures speak about white Gods who came to them and teach them. Quechua, the language of the Andes and the Inka ( coming from the root Ing which means God ((which morphed during Christianity into Angel))) has strong relations to Russian runic language.

    And I still don't know why people here avoid the mentioning of race and only talk about cultural, ethnics,linguistics etc.

    Why do you feel uncomfortable to speak of race? Is that a dirty word for you when you use it outside the Jewish race?
    weel nich will dieken dej mot wieken

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    Quote Originally Posted by Ocko View Post

    I ask you again then what is the name of the root race of all white people or does it not exist at all?
    There were "whites" in Europe long before the indo-European languages evolved. Heck, I'm a mesolithic man myself
    Please don't confuse the terms "nordid" and "nordic".

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