In another thread, Sigrun (the redhead goddess) was quoted as saying the following:
And then...My philosophy of life is that my body doesn't just belong to me to do with as I please - it also belongs to my husband and children. My body is for my husband's pleasure and my children's health.
I have a few questions regarding this:
As far as rape goes, it was only fairly recently that women were given any rights at all. Previously, we were the property of our fathers, and then our husbands. Until recently, there was no law against a husband raping his wife. Because there is no direct documentation that these things took place doesn't mean they didn't take place. Even today where there is much support for the victims of these crimes, only about 10% of rape victims ever report to the police.
1) Define rape inside of marriage (and by implication, and possibly more relevant, abstinence inside of marriage)
2) If there is such scanty evidence available for this act, how do we know for sure that it is so common? Isn't it merely a feminist tool of gaining sympathy? I mean I am married to a lovely woman, and I would never in my whole life consider forcing myself on her without her blessing. This wouldn't even be necessary.
3) How does one balance the fact that a) Your body also belongs to your spouse, and b) You have the right to refuse sexual intercourse, and upon breach of this trust, is called rape? It sounds logical that one should never force oneself on another human being, even your wife (or husband). But consentual sex, and rape is not always easily and accurately defined, since sexual acts often happen spontaneously and in the blink of an eye.
Hope someone can provide some clarification.
Regards,
Loki
Bookmarks