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Thread: Blue Eyes All Come from One Ancestor!

  1. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by Ringenwald View Post
    I don't follow. How it became so predominant in a population if only a single common ancestor surrounded by a multitude of brown-eyed people had this mutation? How is this possible if "the mutation of brown eyes to blue represents neither a positive nor a negative mutation"? The decrease of melanin production must have been a very positive mutation instead, whatever the reason.
    Consider that today more humans are alive than in the entire history of humans (2-3million years) combined.
    Early populations (everything pre-farming era, depending on the region 5-8k years only) were bands of families with maybe 20-30 people, wandering around. Occasionally, individuals were exchanged between the bands, and once the mutation is present in an individual, it will be inherited to the next generation, regardless of whether the individual has itself blue eyes or not. To spread through the entire living population therefore maybe didnt take longer than a hundred or two hundred years.

    I would agree that the mutation occured longer ago in the context of general lesser melanin = light skin of Neanderthal populations already and not so short time ago only. Neanderthals had light skin, often red hair, often freckles and mostly green or otherwise light eyes. So the mutation probably is rather 30-40k old and resides in a section of DNA that is generally responsible for the light complexion of all Europeans today.

    That it is inherited regardless of the parent's own eye colour, there are plenty of examples, just look at the Becker kids. Even though their facial features are clearly negro, some of them have blue eyes, so unlike former claims, it is apparently not a completely recessive gene that is overwritten once you breed with a brown-eyed individual. The section of the DNA is still inherited and remains intact.
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  2. #22
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    But this researcher claims that it happened by random chance, "simply" by "trials" of nature and "shuffling" and doesn't represent a positive or negative mutation for survival. How come that this mutation happened just by coincidence with the migration of these people to higher latitudes? Or was this mutation already presents in some "encounters" who have lived at higher latitudes already a long time before and were wandering around as well?

    Then he claims it happened for the first time ever 6 to 10k ago with a single individual: "Before we had all brown eyes"... I don't know who is "we" here and how "brown" it was but, related to the first comment and if a decrease in overall melanin production gives a survival advantage, why it couldn't have happened long before during the many Ice Age cycles while hominids were roaming across Europe? There have been at least 8 glacial cycles during the last million years alone. How do we know that this mutation wasn't present in some populations living in cold climate, even before the Neandertals who themselves didn't fall out of the blue? Is an analysis of 155 people from Denmark, 5 from Turkey and 2 from Jordan enough to prove it given our knowledge?

    I have sparse knowledge on genetics and human population evolution, but I assume the researcher is a believer of the out of Africa replacement theory. This explains the “we” (= Homo sapiens who transformed themselves along the way in many successive waves and isolation from the other hominids). But just wondering how the story goes if there were countless waves of back and forth migrations of many related hominids and this not only between Homo sapiens and Neanderthals but the full spectrum of hominids who lived for millions of years across Europe, Africa and Asia…

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    Sorry, but that study is nonsense.

    Blue eyes are recessive and there is no way a single individual was able to spread it in a predominant brown eyed population.

    Is only negative propaganda to make people believe that blue eyes are not part of our heritage and that there is nothing wrong if it goes extinct.

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