I meant that I hadn't studied Caucasians and Dravidians--thanks for jogging my memory, but if Basques are R1b, that hardly distinguishes them. I think this means that they are almost entirely assimilated, being non-Indo-European in name only. Basically, it is said that Nordic and Mediterranean have a common subracial and Y DNA origin, but there are no linguistic correlations. On the other hand, R1 occupy the middle ground in what would ostensibly be Alpine territory. Furthermore, R1a and R1b are so obviously correlated by the Satem and Centum isogloss. A Y-DNA map pretty much shows that R and I occupy Indo-European lands. N is also racially "White", but I'm not sure about the other ones, if they overlap with Turks, Semites or whatever.
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