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Thread: Modern Genetics Show That Anglo-Saxons Compose Only 5% of Modern Day British DNA Markers

  1. #41
    Senior Member Ediruc's Avatar
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    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=K_8VUYqDqCg

    This video tells me something else. Although, I've seen elsewhere different percentages. McCulloch claims it is 15%

    25% Keltic Nordic (derived from pre-Roman invaders), 15% Anglo-Saxon (post-Roman Germanic invaders, most common in the southeast, especially East Anglia), 15% Brünn {indigenous Paleolithic inhabitants}, 15% North-Atlantid and 10% Palaeo-Atlantid (blend of Mesolithic Atlanto-Mediterranean invaders with both earlier and later arrivals; most common in the Midlands and northwest), 8% Hallstatt Nordic (of Viking and Norman derivation), 5% Trųnder (of Norwegian Viking derivation; most common in the northeast), 3% Borreby and 2% Fälish (both of Viking and Norman derivation; associated with the landed gentry; source of the "John Bull" type), 2% Noric (from Bronze-Age invaders) = 100% Nordish (73% central and 27% periphery types)
    http://www.racialcompact.com/nordishrace.html

    I thought modern-day Germans were mostly of Anglo-Saxon stock.

  2. #42
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    That it is only 5% is a dangerous assumption. It assumes that the Anglo-Saxon invaders into the British Isles were all 100% "Anglo-Saxon" by their genetic footprint. Instead, it is likely that the proportion of people who genetically date back to the Anglo-Saxon invasion transcends by far the proportion who have "Anglo-Saxon-only" genetic markers.

    Their area of origin is hardly genetically isolated enough to presume a 100% dominance of a certain haplogroup. Likely closer to the Germanic Urheimat (expected to be Northern Germany) than most Germanic peoples, it is likely that their genetic make-up was more stable than that of surrounding populations, however since they weren't exactly in unpervasive terrain (such as an alpine back valley) it is likely that throughout times the original Anglo-Saxons received themselves genetic contribution from external sources.

    As such, if let's say the Anglo-Saxons were themselves only 20% "Anglo-Saxon" genetically, then this would already raise the genetic contribution of people from the Anglo-Saxon invasion to approx. 25% at only 5%, ultimately to approx. 75% if it were only 15%.

    Simplifying it the way they did however, is just part of the agenda to dis-Germanicise the British Isles.
    -In kalte Schatten versunken... /Germaniens Volk erstarrt / Gefroren von Lügen / In denen die Welt verharrt-
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    -Auch ich verspüre Demut / Vor dem alten Geiste der Ahnen / Wird es mir vergönnt sein / Gen Walhalla aufzufahren?-

    (Heimdalls Wacht, In kalte Schatten versunken, stanzas 4-6)

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    Senior Member Falcon's Avatar
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    Maybe that 5% refers to Extreme Nordids only
    Sandy, mousy brown haired Nordid-CroMagnid mixes should be a lot more

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    Senior Member beowulf wodenson's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sigurd View Post
    That it is only 5% is a dangerous assumption. It assumes that the Anglo-Saxon invaders into the British Isles were all 100% "Anglo-Saxon" by their genetic footprint. Instead, it is likely that the proportion of people who genetically date back to the Anglo-Saxon invasion transcends by far the proportion who have "Anglo-Saxon-only" genetic markers.

    Their area of origin is hardly genetically isolated enough to presume a 100% dominance of a certain haplogroup. Likely closer to the Germanic Urheimat (expected to be Northern Germany) than most Germanic peoples, it is likely that their genetic make-up was more stable than that of surrounding populations, however since they weren't exactly in unpervasive terrain (such as an alpine back valley) it is likely that throughout times the original Anglo-Saxons received themselves genetic contribution from external sources.

    As such, if let's say the Anglo-Saxons were themselves only 20% "Anglo-Saxon" genetically, then this would already raise the genetic contribution of people from the Anglo-Saxon invasion to approx. 25% at only 5%, ultimately to approx. 75% if it were only 15%.

    Simplifying it the way they did however, is just part of the agenda to dis-Germanicise the British Isles.
    The 'Anglo-Saxon' invaders/colonists were by no means an ethnically homogeneous bunch themselves, coming from dispersed areas and tribes of Jutland, Lower Saxony, Frisia, Francia, perhaps from even deeper in Germania such as Thuringia according to some ethnographic scholars.
    Some maintain that the eventual "Angli/Englisc" label referring to the inhabitants of England was largely a result of later labeling by church and Wessex monarchies for political and religious motivation in later centuries, not necessarily a naturally-arising ethnic self-designation by the people themselves.
    Even Bede is by no means unambiguous in meaning as to the nations that the English were traditionally supposed to be derived from.
    Foreign period sources often seem unable to distinguish between Angles and Saxons.
    I wonder what component of the "Germanic" DNA signature in modern England might have been contributed by Germanic-speaking peoples (primarily male line ancestry) such as the Frisians and others known to have served in the Roman army and settled in Britain in the late Roman imperial period?
    It would seem difficult to distinguish the "Germanic" Roman auxiliary troops' genetic presence from later kindred peoples that came to Britain during the Migration.
    Perhaps the earlier 'Germanic' settlers were too few to have made a significant contribution/presence to the eventual English gene pool.

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    British, not English!

    British can mean English. Welsh, Scottish an Irish, three out o which are considered Celtic nations (Scotland is an odd case as its both Celtic an Germanic, dependin on which part of the country you go to). England is the only totally Germanic country (in practice, offically i dunno) in the British Isles, so the Anglo-Saxon gene must be higher than only 5%!

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    Senior Member Horagalles's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Méldmir View Post
    We have to keep in mind that the English speak English, and how could that language been spread to all layers of society with just some Anglo-Saxons arriving?...I know much of history is just a mist, so I'm not saying I believe anything to be facts.
    Exactly that was also my objection against the postulated theory. If they Anglo-Saxon invaders were just a tiny minority, How could Anglo Saxon become the language of virtually the whole population of England? Or ask differently, why are there so view remnants of celtic words in that language? And the Latin content of English is actually a later addition coming with the Normans and the influence of the Catholic Church.
    I don't believe the pre-Anglo-Saxon Celtic/British population was completely exterminated, however I believe them to be marginalised also in their numbers.
    "And God proclaims as a first principle to the rulers, and above all else, that there is nothing which they should so anxiously guard, or of which they are to be such good guardians, as of the purity of the race. They should observe what elements mingle in their offspring;..." Plato Politeia

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