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Thread: Clear Explanation of Germanic Origins?

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    Question Clear Explanation of Germanic Origins?

    I have searched and to my surprise i havent founf anything on this subject
    (if a similiar thread already exists then delete this one).

    I wonder what the origins of the ancient Germanic tribes or just say the ancient Germanics was.
    Did the Germanics simply derive from the celts then why this new culture and languige.
    I have also read somewhere that the ancient Germanics where mixed by ancient Celtic and Ugric tribes (i dont know about this but yes i have read it somewhere).

    It would be nice if someone could answer my question.

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    No one can fully explain where they came from. Some people think Germanics came into being in traditional and commonly known Germanic lands (Germany, Austria, Switzerland, etc.), others believe they came from Iran, others from Eastern Europe... The explanations are almost endless. I've read many different explanations and I know which one I believe to be most true, but until there is definitive proof, which there probably never will be, you could claim that Germanics came from Australia, and if you believe it then it's true.

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    Wish i could belive they came from Australia

    But i rahter meant the etnichal originins of the the ancient Germanics.

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    Check my thread from the Anthroforum;
    http://anthroforum.com/showthread.php?t=15456

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    Since Germanic is a branch of Indo-European, the question of its origin ultimately coincides with the wider question of Indo-European origins (Yamna, i.e. Pontic-Caspian, is still considered a favourite by Mallory et al).

    However, it is conceivable that IE was added as a layer over a non-IE population, much like previously Celtic areas (who were not Celtic before that either) in England and Germany were turned Germanic in historic times by means of Germanic migrations of varying magnitudes. The same happened in post-tribal times when previously Baltic or Slavic areas in the east were Germanised.

    In a narrower sense then, one would have to look at the population history of the people who first made the shift from dialectal Indo-European to Germanic. They are most commonly located in the Nordic Bronze Age culture, but Jastorf to the south is also debated. The origins of subsequent individual Germanic tribes and modern-day Germanic peoples are subtly different from each other, but overlapping.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Baldomar View Post
    I have searched and to my surprise i havent founf anything on this subject
    (if a similiar thread already exists then delete this one).

    I wonder what the origins of the ancient Germanic tribes or just say the ancient Germanics was.
    Did the Germanics simply derive from the celts then why this new culture and languige.
    I have also read somewhere that the ancient Germanics where mixed by ancient Celtic and Ugric tribes (i dont know about this but yes i have read it somewhere).

    It would be nice if someone could answer my question.
    there is actually a great book on the subject called "Germanic Origins" written by Francis Gummere in 1892 /one the the best books I have ever read ;note ;I have an original copy of this book and I also have a photostated copy .If anyone is interested i will send them a copy for what it would cost me to copy it ,only

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    Cro-Magnon man emerged at the end of the last ice age around 35,000 years ago. More or less these people were like modern caucasions and genetically modern Europeans descend from them primarily. We don't know where they came from. Some theorize Atlantis, others believe an out of Africa migration and then mutations and adaptations. Cro-Magnon replaced Neanderthal. Modern Europeans have little to no Neanderthal genes (debated that they may have a trivial amount).

    Cro-Magnon gave birth to a tribe that we will call the "Aryans" they were like a more evolved group of Cro-Magnon. This was around 4,000 B.C. Cro Magnon man was already more advanced and with bigger brain than other human groups around the world at the time. The Aryans were even more advanced. They had certain pottery, the use of horses etc. and a new culture based on the warrior, astrological sky gods (main diety a spear weiling lightening God who became Thor and Zeus and also influenced the Christian God Yahweh).

    The Aryan culture spread by war and peace over all of Europe and India basically. Somewhere around 1,000 B.C. or the year 0 (that link says around 1200 BC the Nordic culture started in southern sweden/denmark) the Aryan language split into about 4 languages: Germanic, Celtic, Slavic, then you have your Greek and such. These were actual languages back then not language families. Modern languages split relatively recently like in the middle ages and were also altered by scholars and kings.

    Modern English was invented pretty recently based on Germanic dialects in England. Spanish was based on Latin and invented by some Spanish king. Same with Russian. There are a few remnants of the older language alive. Lithuanian is basically the same as the original Aryan language. If you look at Old English, Old German, and Old Norse they are a bit different but mutually intelligible even in the middle ages.

    Germans are said to have originated in Southern Sweden/Denmark around 2000 B.C. or so. Their language has prehistoric non-Aryan words. They split from a common Aryan/Caucasian ancestor with Celts, Slavs etc. They interbred extensively with Alpine/Dinaric Caucasians. The original Aryans were tall and blond (Nordic). Germans are actually a cross of Nordics and the darker Caucasin races.

    The thing is even though not all Europeans are Nordic it seems that Nordics were the primary culture bearers of most societies. Thus that is why we speak their language (for the most part) and have their culture. They are considered the noble class and the leaders of society. I don't know how true or relevant that is in the modern world as I don't see any major intellectual gap between blond and dark whites today. But that is why the Nazis went for the blond ideal. The Nordics were also great warriors and consider physically more beautiful.

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    So all Whites have a common ancestry?
    Last edited by SpearBrave; Saturday, December 19th, 2009 at 03:11 PM. Reason: direct quoteing

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    Smile

    If anybody heard about theory of Thor Heyerdahl ?

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    Quote Originally Posted by rainman View Post
    Somewhere around 1,000 B.C. or the year 0 (that link says around 1200 BC the Nordic culture started in southern sweden/denmark) the Aryan language split into about 4 languages: Germanic, Celtic, Slavic, then you have your Greek and such. These were actual languages back then not language families. Modern languages split relatively recently like in the middle ages and were also altered by scholars and kings. Modern English was invented pretty recently based on Germanic dialects in England. Spanish was based on Latin and invented by some Spanish king. Same with Russian. There are a few remnants of the older language alive. Lithuanian is basically the same as the original Aryan language. If you look at Old English, Old German, and Old Norse they are a bit different but mutually intelligable even in the middle ages.
    No.I don't know where you got those ideas, but I'm afraid that's not at all how the modern languages came into being. I've attached a schematic which shows the various modern languages and the respective groups they belong to. These are, however, merely language families. Proto-Indo-European isn't your purported "Aryan" language, but a wholly artificial language, reconstructed by modern-day linguists, its existence in no way, manner or fashion supported by actual archeological evidence.

    Only the names in cursive are documented languages. However, while Old Norse and Old English both belong to the Germanic family, you will note that they are in different subcategories, hence they were not mutually intellegible. Speakers of Old English would have understood Old Frisian or Old Saxon, for instance, but they would only have understood those Norse words which the Danish settlers in the Danelaw introduced into the (Old) English language. This would have been in the early Middle Ages, mind you.

    The concept that monarchs or scholars "invented" any language is ludicrous, to put it bluntly. Spanish evolved from Latin, yes, because the Romans occupied the Iberian peninsula for quite some time. But at no point was there a king who sat down, thought up a language, and told his subjects to learn it. The only man I can think of who developed a convincing language which is actually spoken nowadays is Tolkien. And maybe the bloke who created Klingon.
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