I have a question about why the Benelux countries, The Netherlands in particular, have been invaded by Germany in may 10th. 1940. Have there been violations of Dutch (or any other Benelux) airspace earlier than may 10th. 1940 of any side?
The German foreign minister held following speech:
http://www.islandnet.com/~kpolsson/today/510.htm(Berlin) German Foreign Minister Joachim von Ribbentrop informs the foreign press that Germany had seized the initiative by anticipating Anglo-French aggression in the Ruhr area over Netherlands and Belgian territory. He presents evidence that Netherlands and Belgium were not acting as neutrals, that they were defending only on the German border, and allowing British and French assistance in attempting revolution in Germany. German forces in the Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg would ast as protectors and take steps to ensure their neutrality.
How serious are these claims?
I could not find an answer here, still interesting:
http://www.waroverholland.nl/index.php?page=introduction
Thank´s in advance.
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