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Thread: When Europeans Were Slaves: More Common Than Previously Thought

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    Senior Member Karpaten Befreier's Avatar
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    If I remember right, only the Teutons (excluding the Vikings) and Dacians, possibly the Celts, have been the only people who haven't had slaves in the modern sense of the word. Whenever one conquered another, chances are there will be enslavement. It's just that the non-whites always want to play as the only victims in history. Heck, my ancestors were probably enslaved by the Romans and maybe the Ottomans, but I don't complain to the Italians and Turks. I wouldn't be taken seriously anyway if I would complain. Only "minorities" are.
    I am just a drummer.- Adolf H.

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    A not very well known case of Europeans enslaved is discussed by Dr. Matt Johnson in his June 17, 2010 lecture.
    The fall of Poland in the 18th century

    June 17, 2010



    Matt Johnson discusses:

    * The fall of Poland
    * Jews in Polish history
    * the nobles in Polish history
    * the causes of Poland’s fall at the end of the 18th century
    * Polish Economy
    http://forums.skadi.net/redirector.p...J_20100617.mp3

    Matt Johnson deserves to be quoted word by word.[18:40]
    " The Polish nobility was smart enough not to give over the necessary economic power, the merchant power, the liquid banking power to Poles,
    so what did they do ?
    This is the thesis here, the central concept (of this 2 volume work from 1856 by English historian Harold Saxon):

    They gave it to the Jews.

    Like i said, about 80% of the world jews would eventually move to the Polish Empire (in the late 17th and early 18th century), even to the point
    where jews prior to the Cossack revolt will view the Polish Empire as the New Jerusalem, and more than that, the jews will view the Polish Empire in of itself as Messianic. That the Messiah will come, because the jews have been given a tremendous level of power in the Polish Empire. Not until 20th century America the jews will ever again gain this level of power. The jews controlled all the money in Poland, they controlled all the commerce of Poland, they controlled the monarchy, and they controlled the nobility, and they did this through the fact, that the only people who had any access to liquid money were the jews that were deliberately imported from Khazaria, from Southern Russia into the Polish Empire, and the nobles did this to number one: Keep the monarchy away from money, keep actual Poles away from money, and to keep any of their political opponents away from money.

    So by the middle of the 16th century, the early 17th century, you had a powerless monarchy, you had a society completely dominated by nobles,
    you had million of slaves of Polish Catholic nationality, and the towns like Kracow and elsewhere were populated by jews who were given licenses by the nobility to engage in all banking, all trade, and the nobility
    collectively gave the jewish population in Poland an absolute monopoly over the sale and distillery of alcohol.

    I wanna suggest to you guys that a huge proportion of the modern jewish mentality came into existence due to their immense favorable treatment in the Polish Empire at the beginning of the 17th century."
    See also thread:

    Dr. Matt Johnson: The Fall of Poland in the 18th Century
    http://forums.skadi.net/showthread.php?t=137487

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    Quote Originally Posted by Karpaten Befreier View Post
    If I remember right, only the Teutons (excluding the Vikings) and Dacians, possibly the Celts, have been the only people who haven't had slaves in the modern sense of the word. .
    The Germanic tribes and the Celts had slaves. Not on the level of the Greeks and the Romans, but they had them.

    Not sure about the Dacians.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Thorwald View Post
    The Germanic tribes and the Celts had slaves. Not on the level of the Greeks and the Romans, but they had them.

    Not sure about the Dacians.
    According to this

    History of Slavery
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_slavery
    The only Germanic people who practiced slavery were the non-Christian ("barbarian") Norse raiders. Dito for the Celts.

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    I'm sorry, I don't mean to be rude, but Wikipedia is not a highly reliable source for history and should never be cited as such.

    Todd, Malcolm. The Early Germans. Blackwell Publishing. 1992. P. 34 states that while slavery was not very common, it did exist. They were largely prisoners of war and were used in agricultural fields or as household servants. Some were sold off to Rome.

    James, Simon. The World of the Celts. Thames and Hudson. 1993. p 53, 70, 115, 129, 162 make it clear small scale slavery existed and was often exported to Rome.

    So my original assertion stands. It was nothing like what Mediterranean societies practiced, but it did exist - and it may have existed largely because of the slave based Mediterranean economies in the first place.

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    Senior Member Catterick's Avatar
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    In medieval Europe slavery was rare except at the peripheries such as Italy. This was a cultural continuity perhaps an expression of the Germanisation of Christianity.

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