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Thread: Who is an "Aryan" anyway?

  1. #11
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    Quote Originally Posted by Crattet
    I was talking about Northern Europeans who use the term, the whole Nazi Aryan thing has made it the definition for blonde haired blue eyed fair people all over the place to some people.
    Crattet, I know, but I was talking about what Telperion said that Indo-European doesnt mean the same thing as Arayan does.

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    Well technicly it seems to include everyone and his mother who lives in Europe and India except the slav. Even the little bald brown men from the caucauses mountains are calssed as Indo Aryan linguisticly.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Green Nationalist
    Well technicly it seems to include everyone and his mother who lives in Europe and India except the slav. Even the little bald brown men from the caucauses mountains are calssed as Indo Aryan linguisticly.
    But theyre not, the dictionary is wrong. Ask a linguist which peoples referred to themselves as Arayans.

    And the Slavs do speak Indo-European languages, if youre remembering theres an exception to Indo-European languages in northern Europe, then its probably the Finno-Ugrians youre thinking about.

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    Question a Dalo-Faelish language?

    Just on IE languages and NW Europe.

    Were the original Upper Paleolithic (or Cro-Magnid) inhabitants of NW Europe of IE extraction?

    I have read repeatedly the figure that 80% or more of NW European make-up is of UP origin, and not IE, which, combined with the core of non IE words in Germanic, make me wonder if in speaking IE tongues, all of us, we aren't still to this day speaking the language of "aristocratic-warrior" invaders, our own original tongue ("sky, egg, ship" etc) being lost to time.

    Just a thought, feel free to tear it to shreds.

    on topic: I, too, wince when I see the word Aryan at all these days.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SURT
    Just on IE languages and NW Europe.
    Were the original Upper Paleolithic (or Cro-Magnid) inhabitants of NW Europe of IE extraction?
    No, indeed they weren't.

    I have read repeatedly the figure that 80% or more of NW European make-up is of UP origin, and not IE, which, combined with the core of non IE words in Germanic, make me wonder if in speaking IE tongues, all of us, we aren't still to this day speaking the language of "aristocratic-warrior" invaders, our own original tongue ("sky, egg, ship" etc) being lost to time.
    Very likely you're right. For instance, I've read that dispite all the invasions of Britain that have taken place over the centuries, the population in most parts of the island is still derived directly from its aboriginal UP inhabitants. Presumably, the UP culture (and a handful of words from its languages) were absorbed by or integrated into the dominant Indo-European culture.

    That's one reason why I find the loose application of the term "Aryan" to be objectionable; it can lead to theories about our origins (i.e. that all Northern Europeans constitute an "Aryan Race") which seem to be quite at odds with the anthropolgical facts.

    While this is very speculative, I've often thought that elements of Norse mythology could be seen as a sort of distorted folk memory of the process of interaction between the Upper Paleolithic aboriginals and the Indo-European settlers in prehistoric times. If you take the Vanir and their religion and culture to be representative of the Upper Paleolithic peoples in Scandinaiva, and the Aesir are indicative of the Indo-European presence, then it would seem that the interaction between them was first one of conflict, then of peaceful co-existence, and finally of cultural and (especially) linguistic assimilation of the former group by the latter. I wouldn't propose this as a factual claim, but rather as a hypothesis worthy of investigation, to see if the available archeological and anthropological data reflects such a process of interaction.

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