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  • Originally posted by Baorn View Post
    New Age Hippie lies!

    The problems began between pagans, first the Romans and Celts, then Romans and Germans. The Celts were assimilated by the Republic under Caesar, then the Germans by the Empire under Augustus. Subsequently, Rome moved to Carolingian Gaul and then Ottonian Germany. There were continuous attempts to annex and assimilate our lands further North, but they only managed to make satellite states out of us, even as we were able to do the same with Welsh and Finnish folks and those associated with them.

    Religion? Bah!
    That's largely not true, the Romans never really wanted to push much further beyond the Rhine and Danube.

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    • Carolingian and Ottonian Romans.
      https://forums.skadi.net/filedata/fetch?type=thumb&filedataid=113340

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      • Originally posted by Baorn View Post
        Carolingian and Ottonian Romans.
        ...are definitely not Roman. If that were true, the Roman Empire lasted until 1806.

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        • Read the post by Drottin I replied to.
          https://forums.skadi.net/filedata/fetch?type=thumb&filedataid=113340

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          • Originally posted by Baorn View Post
            Read the post by Drottin I replied to.
            Just did, there is no way that you can say the advance of Roman Catholicism into pagan Europe is parallel to expansions of some kind of neo-Roman Empire.

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            • Ok, I wanted to ask about differencies between I1 and R1(a/b) because in one other forum one member blaimed next:

              R1 (a/b) were only Indo-europeans and only Aryans and they looked like this:


              I1 people instead looked like this


              He blaimed that it is results of R1(a/b) men that I1 men (in Scandinavia) looks today how they look ....those would be ''indoeuropeanized''´by R1 men as time has gone.

              Is this full BS? I hope so as I1 % is high both in Sweden as well as in Ostrobothnia (Finland).

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              • Originally posted by Anglo-Briton View Post
                Just did, there is no way that you can say the advance of Roman Catholicism into pagan Europe is parallel to expansions of some kind of neo-Roman Empire.
                Who do you think imposed Popery? What do you call the Massacre of Verden? What do you think the point of describing the Danevirke as a barrier to Rome is about? It wasn't called "Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation" for no reason. Can you not see the parallel with Offa's Dyke in Mercia, Alfred the Great in Wessex regarding Watling Street and the Danelaw under Guthrum? Is English your first language? Are you even English?
                https://forums.skadi.net/filedata/fetch?type=thumb&filedataid=113340

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                • Originally posted by MindnightSun View Post
                  Ok, I wanted to ask about differencies between I1 and R1(a/b) because in one other forum one member blaimed next:

                  R1 (a/b) were only Indo-europeans and only Aryans and they looked like this:


                  I1 people instead looked like this


                  He blaimed that it is results of R1(a/b) men that I1 men (in Scandinavia) looks today how they look ....those would be ''indoeuropeanized''´by R1 men as time has gone.

                  Is this full BS? I hope so as I1 % is high both in Sweden as well as in Ostrobothnia (Finland).
                  It is likely complete BS, don't worry. Certainly, the original Scandinavian hunter-gatherers had alleles for things like blonde/red hair, pale skin and light eyes (UNLIKE hunter-gatherers in Europe proper, interestingly, minus the fact that they too had light eyes). However, these Scandinavian hunter-gatherers (SHG) belonged to I2, not I1. We don't have much data on Y DNA I1, unfortunately, so nobody can claim to know the answer, though it CAN be said that the original hunter-gatherers in Scandinavia were already light pigmented.

                  One thing to mention though, with the image of the fair girl you posted, is which populations look like that today? There is an immense correlation between Y DNA I1 and Nordid phenotypes, so anybody trying to undermine Y DNA I1 is going about it entirely the wrong way.

                  It is, however, true that R1 men "Indo-Europeanised" Scandinavia, yet Scandinavia displays the highest genetic affinity to Indo-Europeans on the planet.

                  Basically, the whole proposition is absurd to worry about - even if I1-carriers did look like that, look what they look like now!

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                  • Originally posted by Baorn View Post
                    Who do you think imposed Popery? What do you call the Massacre of Verden? What do you think the point of describing the Danevirke as a barrier to Rome is about? It wasn't called "Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation" for no reason. Can you not see the parallel with Offa's Dyke in Mercia, Alfred the Great in Wessex regarding Watling Street and the Danelaw under Guthrum? Is English your first language? Are you even English?
                    Why wouldn't I be English, I actually think I speak pretty eloquently, and if you go back and check my spelling I'm sure there'll be cases of British English spelling. But anyway, it is ridiculous to claim that the HRE was actually Roman in anything other than name and religion (and even then, half of it eventually become Protestant). Using your logic, the Roman Empire still exists today, as Roman Catholicism still has immense (albeit soft) power.

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                    • Well then, you are just being difficult because I understand what he said and I agreed with him, only that it was the HRE that made it possible to spread Popery up to the Danish border. That's what the discussion is about. Maybe you think that the Bishop of Rome could send some Swiss Guards to impose the RCC?

                      You don't know history. The Kalmar Union turned Scandinavia into a group of satellite states of the Holy Roman Empire and thence Poland, through the Church of Germany (primarily Hamburg-Bremen), Wendish dynasties from Mecklenburg-Pomerania and the Hanseatic League.

                      https://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...ssia-to-Sweden

                      ...And vice versa? The relationship of France and Spain to England and vice versa is well known, but I'm looking to shed light on these dynamics from those part of that society, including the details. I'm wondering how these two situations compare and contrast, since both England and Sweden are Nordic nations that got about as lost in Continental Europe as Germany's own fusion with Italy, in contrast to the long-standing union of Denmark & Norway having kept them aloft.

                      To me, I'd say that England and Sweden sat on a fence between the Germany-Italy relationship on one hand, the Denmark-Norway one on another. Indeed, in my opinion, it is the Celtic and Finnic heritages of each that demarcate them from the Germanic centre.

                      Feel free to take this thread wherever the topic takes you.
                      https://forums.skadi.net/filedata/fetch?type=thumb&filedataid=113340

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