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wiccawitcher
Sunday, January 1st, 2006, 10:09 PM
Dinarization has its origin in Persian invasion of Anatolia (actually a region of Turkey) in antiquity.
The ancient greeks or hellenes suffered a strong interaction with those persians of Anatolia and they taken this dinarization for Balkan and western europe with their med colognies of south of Italy and Iberia.
Persians and Armenians already had suffered a first racial interaction with semitical population of Middle east and Mesopotamie.
Proto Phoenicians has a interaction with semitical people above and their colognies of med spreaded with greek colognies the dinarization over all northern med too.
If we look at the afrescoes and low releves of people from ancient mesopotamie (Assyrians,babylons,Caldeans) we will see in those ancient profiles a hooked semitical nose that it was absorved by ancient proto Persians from the first iranians invasions of iranian plato.
That interaction results a armenoid profile of the new conquers persians of Mesopotamie.
The interaction of persians with ancient greeks was named Hellenization or
Hellenic Age (west east interaction)
with the Byzantine culture in the center like a record
then we could see in all Balkans,Aeagens,Italy the spread results of dinarization of Europe.
The Roman Impire taken this dinararization from med for all rest of northwesthern Europe.
Conclusion is that dinarization is a semitical feature or foreign element taken from persians for Europe by hellenes or ancient greeks.

Frid
Sunday, January 8th, 2006, 02:31 PM
Sounds likely but why only Anatolia. Didn't Greeks also have other colonies where this could have happened? Does someone maybe have a map of their colonies?

fareast
Saturday, June 17th, 2006, 09:07 AM
The origin of Scythians are similar to Persian's,and their influences on modern Europeans are much more than the latter.

Galaico
Saturday, June 17th, 2006, 09:57 AM
Isn't Dinarization more a process or specialization related with high altitude, than a proper sub-type?

Agrippa
Sunday, June 18th, 2006, 02:21 AM
It seems to be the case. Furthermore its better to use more general geographic terms than something like "Persian" if speaking about regions in which the respective groups (Persians, Iranians) didnt lived in the time in question which would have to be Neolithic-Bronze Age, the time in which first cases of Taurid groups, even populations (Bronze Age rather, compare with Bell Beakers) can be found.

Rafael
Sunday, June 18th, 2006, 04:34 PM
Could someone please explain what defines a "persian"?

I live in Sweden and there are many iranian immigrants here. I am aware of the fact that Iran is a multi-ethnical country and that only around 50% of all iranians are classified as "persians".

Anyway, 9 out of 10 iranians in Sweden have clearly arabid/armenid, almost jewish features (they look in general more like stereotype jews than what most modern israelis do) and very dark skin or greyish/pale yellow skin with extreme body hair. They also have a stronger and more musky body smell than for example northern african arabs.

1 out of 10 iranians in Sweden look more like whiter mediterranean people, such as greeks. They seem to be of mixed race but I don't know where the obvious european features come from.

If you look at history, it was obvious that Alexander the Great considered persians as the racial and cultural opposite of the macedonian greek culture. He even called for arranged mass marriages between persian women and greek men in an attempt to create a unified western, greek race from west to east in his vast empire.

If you ask me, persian culture, from what I've seen is not very "indo-european" or "western" either, except from the language. This is very clear if you look at history as well. The way the greeks waged war and built their civilization differs from the persians, quite a lot, and was one reason the persians never managed to concquer Europe.

So, what IS a persian? Is it a white "aryan" person from long before the dawn of civilization or is it an oriental people with an indo-european language?

I don't see the relation between persians and westerners at all.

Kshatriya
Saturday, November 18th, 2006, 07:25 PM
Swedish people do not look Mediterannean just because their hair is dark

some_one_number_one
Wednesday, December 6th, 2006, 06:04 AM
i think sarmatians and scythians (ancient iranian - persian - tribes living in Europe) was dinarids and pontids + maybe little bit irano-afganid. From all ancient paintings, arts and talles we can describe them that! ;-)
I think sarmatians was dark haired but light eyes dinarid + irano-afganid. and Scythians pontid + irano-afganid (?).
President of Byellorussia Łukaszenko looks very sarmatian (his eyes!)

Skyht
Wednesday, December 6th, 2006, 12:12 PM
@Rafael

I have already answered you in some other thread but in case you are still interested I will give you here some short arguments on the things you said.


Anyway, 9 out of 10 iranians in Sweden have clearly arabid/armenid, almost jewish features (they look in general more like stereotype jews than what most modern israelis do) and very dark skin or greyish/pale yellow skin with extreme body hair. They also have a stronger and more musky body smell than for example northern african arabs.

I donít know what to say about that body smell thing but let me tell you that Persians have in most cases long heads/skulls and have a dark or bright skin colour and are typically tall when compared to Armenids or Turks. You may want to go into detail what Jewish traits are for you since Jews are very mixed.


If you look at history, it was obvious that Alexander the Great considered persians as the racial and cultural opposite of the macedonian greek culture.

Thatís wrong, I give you one simple and basic example as what Greeks saw the Persians. They said that the ancestor of the Persians was Perseus, they would never have connected an alien people with a hero like Perseus. They did something similar with the Scythians. This is one of many examples.


He even called for arranged mass marriages between persian women and greek men in an attempt to create a unified western, greek race from west to east in his vast empire.

Now think twice, Greeks would have never mixed with alien people but marriages between related people of tribes was a very common action to create peace.


If you ask me, persian culture, from what I've seen is not very "indo-european" or "western" either, except from the language. This is very clear if you look at history as well. The way the greeks waged war and built their civilization differs from the persians, quite a lot, and was one reason the persians never managed to concquer Europe.

I doubt you could go into detail on that ? Ever heard of the Cyropedea ? Xenophon an Athenian wrote about Cyrus and said on his example of the perfect ruler has to look like. Beside that Persians were one of the only people/barbarians which the greeks called beatyfull and noble.