View Full Version : Is the 'Mediterranid Race' Only Applicable for Proto-Aryans?

Sunday, January 1st, 2006, 07:51 PM
The term Mediterranid needs to be applied only for Proto-Aryan races based in all Med civilizations of antiquity: Italics like Etruscs, Balkanians like Greeks, Macedonians, Aegeans, Myceaneans and Minuans (South of Europe) Berbers and Proto Egyptians (north of Africa), Near Eastern like Proto-Phoenicians and in Asia Minor like Hittites.

Basques are not Meds, they are Alpinids from Pyrenees, like Celts are too, they were mixed with Med Greeks and Phoenicians and their interaction with Carthagenese to give us the Celt-Iberid races.

Then the I-E root languages were a reference cause of Rigveda from the Aryans that it was wrote in Sanskrit and VESTAVEDA from iranids persians but it isnot spoken for all proto aryan tribes (Etruscs,minuans,basques,berbers,proto egyptians).

It occurs probably cause they are from a ancient root that it arrived in Europe before Aryan Invasion in Indus Valley and Irano-Persian in Iranian Plato.

Greeks are closest for sankrit than others I E languages cause their ancistors

from the Aryan tribes of Indus Valley have arrived in Balkans within a temporal distance very short after Arian Invasion in the north of India in 1700 BC.

It exists strong evidences of Indo aryan origin of greeks and phoenicians related for the mythology too.(God Hyndra is the same for the hellenic Acheans and the Brahamid indo aryas)

Semitic people arrived in med and near east after proto aryan invasion in south of Europe,they came from Mesopotamie and middle east forced by aryan invasions of Persians and others aryans tribes then only proto aryans are legitime med.

The interaction beetwin proto phoenicians and semites created the semitic phoenicians like it occurs for proto egyptians and sub sahara negroids with semites from arabic peninsule.